Fathers

Loading…

What the Fathers say

1 Corinthians 7:28

Eastern Fathers

John Chrysostom

Then, lest this should seem to be laying down a law, he subjoins, "but if thou marry, thou hast not sinned." He next alleges the existing state of things, "the present distress, the shortness of the time," and "the affliction." For marriage draws along with it many things, which indeed he hath glanced at, as well here as also in the discourse about continence: there, by saying, "the wife hath not power over herself;" and here, by the expression, "Thou art bound." "But if and thou marry, thou hast not sinned." He is not speaking about …

Homily on 1 Corinthians 19 ↗

Theophylact of Ohrid

By "virgin" here he means not one who is consecrated to God (for if such a one marries, she undoubtedly sins, since by this, besides her Bridegroom Christ, she introduces an adulterer to herself), but a still-unmarried maiden. So if such a one marries, she does not sin, because marriage contains nothing impure in itself.

Commentary on 1 Corinthians ↗

Methodius of Olympus

For this is acceptable to God, he does not wish these things to be said as by authority, and as the mind of the Lord, with reference to the giving of a virgin in marriage; for after he had said. So, immediately after he had said, "if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned "he added, "such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you."

Methodius Discourse III. Thaleia ↗

Western Saints

Bonaventure

To that objection that the act of marriage is by way of indulgence: it must be said that this is not said of marriage itself and of the nuptial act that is performed for the procreation of children, but of that which is performed for the restraining of incontinence, because this has venial fault joined to it. Hence Augustine, in the book On the Good of Marriage: "If you have taken a wife, you have not sinned: and if a virgin marries, she does not sin. …

Disputed Questions on Evangelical Perfection, Question 3 ↗