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Translation
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What the Fathers say
Eastern Fathers
John Chrysostom
"And how did the expression, 'It is not lawful for us to put any man to death,' declare this?" Either the Evangelist means that He was about to be slain not by the Jews only, but by the Gentiles also, or that it was not lawful for them to crucify. But if they say, "It is not lawful for us to put any man to death," they say it with reference to that season. For that they did slay men, and that they slew them in a different way, Stephen shows, being stoned. …
Cyril of Alexandria
They answer, that their purification, accomplished by the slaughter of the Paschal lamb (if any purification at all were possible for such murderers), stood in their way, and was, as it were, an overpowering obstacle to their shedding His innocent Blood. For, surely, they would have been very ready to commit the impious crime, and would not have needed the co-operation of any other. …
Theophylact of Ohrid
"That the word of Jesus might be fulfilled" concerning His death, namely: either that He would be crucified (Matt. 20:18–19), or that He would be put to death not by the Jews, but by the Gentiles (Mark 10:33). So when the Jews said that it was not lawful for them to put anyone to death, then the Gentiles take Him, and according to their custom crucify Him on the cross, and thus the word of Jesus is fulfilled in both respects: in that He was delivered to the Gentiles, and in that He was crucified.
Western Saints
Augustine of Hippo
As we read in Mark, Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be delivered unto the chief priests, and unto the scribes; and they shall condemn Him to death, and shall deliver Him to the Gentiles. (Mark 10:33) Pilate again was a Roman, and was sent to the government of Judæa, from Rome. That this saying of Jesus then might be fulfilled, i. e. that He might be delivered unto and killed by the Gentiles, they would not accept Pilate's offer, but said, It is not lawful for us to put any man to death.
Thomas Aquinas
2342 The Evangelist gives the reason the Jews refused when he says, This was to fulfill the word which Jesus had spoken to show by what death he was to die. The words this was to fulfill do not indicate the intention the Jews had, but the arrangement of God's providence. For Jesus had said (Mt 20:19) that it was by the Gentiles that he would be crucified and killed, but that he would be handed over to them by the Jews. So, in order that this be accomplished, the Jews were unwilling to judge and kill him themselves.
Bonaventure
"That the word of Jesus might be fulfilled." Here the fourth point is noted, namely that the will of Christ is fulfilled. For he willed to die the death of the cross, by which the Gentiles put to death; therefore it says: "That it might be fulfilled," that is, it so happened that the word might be fulfilled "which he spoke," above in the third chapter: "As Moses lifted up the serpent in the desert, so must the Son of Man be lifted up," and above in the twelfth chapter: "signifying by what death he was to die," namely of the cross; …
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