John Chrysostom

"Therefore being a Prophet, and knowing," etc. Do you observe how he now interprets the prophecy, and does not give it bare of comment? How did He "seat Him upon" David's "throne?" For the kingdom after the Spirit is in heaven. Observe how, along with the resurrection, he has also declared the kingdom in the fact of His rising again. He shows that the Prophet was under constraint: for the prophecy was concerning Him. …

Homily on Acts 6 ↗

Theophylact of Ohrid

"God promised with an oath." He did not say "promised," but "promised with an oath," indicating by this the immutability of the promise. "To set on the throne." Throne is used in place of Kingdom in many places of Divine Scripture; for example: "Thy throne, O God, is forever" (Ps. 44:7). But in what way does He sit on the throne of David? In that He is King both of the Jews, and all the more of those who crucified Him.

Commentary on Acts ↗

Oecumenius

And even so it did not apply to Christ; rather David is praised again by the phrase "Being therefore a prophet," so that through the honor paid to him and his offspring the one from him, they may accept the account concerning the resurrection of the Christ. And he did not say that God had promised him, but it was greater and sacred, the, He sworn. But the phrase, "did his flesh," is proclaimed insofar as Christ is also God, and he always exists with the Father. …

Commentary on Acts ↗

Bede

Therefore, being a prophet and knowing that God had sworn to him with an oath that of the fruit of his loins one would sit on his throne, he spoke foresightfully about the resurrection of Christ, etc. In the Greek it is more: To raise the Christ from the fruit of his loins and to sit on his throne. But in what follows: Foresightedly he spoke of the resurrection of his Christ, because neither was he left in hell; it is more consistently in the Greek: Because neither was his soul left in hell. …

Retractions on Acts ↗