Fathers

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What the Fathers say

1 Corinthians 7:10

Eastern Fathers

John Chrysostom

Because it is a law expressly appointed by Christ which he is about to read to them about the "not putting away a wife without fornication;" therefore he says, "Not I." True it is what was before spoken though it were not expressly stated, yet it also is His decree. But this, you see, He had delivered in express words. So that the words "I and not I" have this difference of meaning. …

Homily on 1 Corinthians 19 ↗

Theophylact of Ohrid

Since the Lord in clear words gave the law not to divorce, except for the cause of fornication (Matt. 5:32), the apostle says: "not I, but the Lord." But what was said before was not literally legislated by the Lord. Nevertheless, the words of Paul are also the words of the Lord, and not of man, for below he says of himself: "I think that I also have the Spirit of God" (1 Cor. 7:40).

Commentary on 1 Corinthians ↗

Justin Martyr

And, "Whosoever shall marry her that is divorced from another husband, committeth adultery." And, "There are some who have been made eunuchs of men, and some who were born eunuchs, and some who have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake; but all cannot receive this saying." So that all who, by human law, are twice married, are in the eye of our Master sinners, and those who look upon a woman to lust after her.

The First Apology, Chapter XV ↗

Western Saints

Thomas Aquinas

After presenting teachings about the contract of marriage, the Apostle now instructs those who have already contracted marriage, that they must not dissolve the marriage. First, he teaches those already joined in marriage to continue in it; secondly, he gives them a useful teaching as to all the states or conditions of men (v. 20). In regard to the first he does two things. First, he deals with the indissolubility of marriage, as it applies to those who are of one worship; secondly, when there is disparity of cult (v. 12). …

Commentary on 1 Corinthians ↗