Theophylact of Ohrid

From this you will understand more clearly what he said above: "submit to your own husbands, as to the Lord." Since wives must submit to their husbands as the Church to Christ, and the Church and wives constitute this, then as to Christ, the wife must submit to her husband. But in what manner? Does he always command submission? Even when the husband is inclined toward unbelief? But Paul is not speaking now about unbelieving husbands, but about believing ones, about whom he was undoubtedly writing.

Commentary on Ephesians ↗

Theodoret of Cyrus

As one who is giving instruction to the pious, Paul here adds the words "subject in all things." It is evident from this analogy that he is speaking essentially to the pious, to those well trained in religious life. None of those reared in piety would think of putting their own affairs before God.

Interpretation of the Epistle to the Ephesians 5.24 ↗

Thomas Aquinas

From this he draws the conclusion he intended, saying Therefore, as the church is subject to Christ. As though he said: It is not proper for an organ to rebel against its head in any situation; but as Christ is head of the church in his own way, so a husband is the head of his wife; therefore the wife must be obedient to her husband as the church is subject to Christ. "Shall not my soul be subject to God?" (Ps. 61:2), so also let the wives be to their husbands. "And you shall be under your husband's power" (Gen. …

Commentary on Ephesians ↗